They just changed some verbiage in the 2020 weapons act in my jurisdiction. The law used to read if you used a weapon against any person without justified motivation.. . ..
. Now the law says if you use against another person without good cause.
. Isn't that the same thing? does use against another person with good cause lower the bar? Thank you in advance gentlemen
I know it's not good to seek legal advice on a public forum,, I'm just looking for opinions
. Now the law says if you use against another person without good cause.
. Isn't that the same thing? does use against another person with good cause lower the bar? Thank you in advance gentlemen
I know it's not good to seek legal advice on a public forum,, I'm just looking for opinions