The plain language of the statute would seem to suggest that it's legal. However, what happens in many states with similar statutes is that a Court will decide that your mere possession of a fixed-blade knife constitutes "intent... [to injure an] individual in an unlawful manner." It's pathological reasoning, that a statute with a clear requirement of intent can be satisfied without proof of intent, but it happens.
Consult a criminal attorney licensed in MD.