Threads pop up where folks complain about rust on their stainless knife, and replies from others stating no rust at all on their knife made with the same steel.
In these anecdotes, it's impossible to account for environments, usage, and so on. Still, I find it striking how some describe significant rust even with knives facing no significant usage, while others have no problems using the same model.
Yesterday, I noticed a couple stainless bookshelves from Ikea in my house. They are one piece, fabricated from sheet metal, welded and joints ground smooth. Both identical, except one has rust. Not only that, one has rust only on a single panel. Both shelves hang on the wall next to each other and receive no significant difference in treatment.
It occurs to me that it's totally possible the one panel on the one bookshelf isn't the same kind of stainless as the rest of the material (though it still appears to be stainless), and would corrode differently. However, it also occurs to me that it may be the same grade of stainless, but from a different batch or source, and behaves differently because of variances in manufacturing when the metal itself was manufactured.
If the latter scenario is the case, it would seem to throw a monkey wrench in blade evaluations. If the corrosion resistance of a particular stainless can vary significantly from one batch of steel to another, is it not reasonable to assume that other characteristics can also vary? The question is, how much can a particular grade of steel be counted on to be homogeneous from year to year, factory to factory, knife to knife?
In these anecdotes, it's impossible to account for environments, usage, and so on. Still, I find it striking how some describe significant rust even with knives facing no significant usage, while others have no problems using the same model.
Yesterday, I noticed a couple stainless bookshelves from Ikea in my house. They are one piece, fabricated from sheet metal, welded and joints ground smooth. Both identical, except one has rust. Not only that, one has rust only on a single panel. Both shelves hang on the wall next to each other and receive no significant difference in treatment.
It occurs to me that it's totally possible the one panel on the one bookshelf isn't the same kind of stainless as the rest of the material (though it still appears to be stainless), and would corrode differently. However, it also occurs to me that it may be the same grade of stainless, but from a different batch or source, and behaves differently because of variances in manufacturing when the metal itself was manufactured.
If the latter scenario is the case, it would seem to throw a monkey wrench in blade evaluations. If the corrosion resistance of a particular stainless can vary significantly from one batch of steel to another, is it not reasonable to assume that other characteristics can also vary? The question is, how much can a particular grade of steel be counted on to be homogeneous from year to year, factory to factory, knife to knife?