Well, first, keep in mind I am not a lawyer, so my opinion is not worth a hill of beans, but in parsing the law as written, it refers to the instrument as "knuckles" not "knuckle", "finger rings" not "finger ring" and "guards" not "guard".
So by a strict reading of the law as written, then No, the law would appear NOT to apply to that specific knife.
The kicker is that it doesn't matter whether or not the law applies IF a LEO thinks it might apply. While you might at a later date end up having charges dismissed or even not even filed after your lawyer got through working the system, you'd still be out a lot of time and money and aggravation fighting any possible charges.
Also, there MAY be case law hiding in the court records somewhere that has set a precedence one way or the other.
If your finger(s) doesn't/don't fit through the ring, that MIGHT be a reason why the knife in question would not be classified as being a set of knuckles.
Personally, would I consider such a knife to be a "knuckle weapon"? Nope, but then remember, I'm just a redneck farm boy from Texas who is also well-educated, logical and a "sharps enthusiast" who passed every logical processes/proofs/theorems class he ever took with a "B" or better.

You must remember that the law is legal, not logical.
