This may be a bad time for me to post a topic like this because I'll be out of town for several days starting Saturday. Let me start by saying I've had several dealings with fellow forumites buying, selling and trading and all have gone well---no complaints. My question is this, most sellers want a money order in advance before they are willing to ship the knife or knives. This seems to make sense. But logically it falls apart. Assuming buyer and seller are unknown to each other the implication is that the seller, merely because he is a seller is inherently more trustworthy than the buyer. Why is this? The logical flaw in my opinion is this. Money is fungible. Fifty bucks is fifty bucks. They are alot more people with $50 bucks than there are witha specific knife. The buyer is taking more of a chance. He is assuming the seller has the knfe he claims he has and that it is in the condition that he says it is. With a M.O. unlike a check, you don't get back a cancelled instrument witha name and account number on it. The seller doesn't have to worry that the cash he gets is not really NIB, or excellent or very good. The buyer on the other hand has to rely on the sellers word whereas the seller in many cases is unwilling to accept the buyers word (in the form of a check). I prefer to use checks for many reasons, not the least of which is convience. If the seller is willing to accept my check I always telltehm to feel free to hold the knife till the check clears. I think that this is only fair. The system just seems logically flawed to me but if I started insisting the the seller send me the knife first and when I got it and if it was what he claimed it to be then I would send payment I do think I'd being able to buy many knives. Any thoughts on this?
Charley
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who dares, wins
Charley
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who dares, wins