Feedback & opinion on forum edicate and time stamps

casimirrx

casimirrx

Feedback: +24 / =0 / -0
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Jun 15, 2009
Messages
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If someone posts something for sale and I secure a time stamp with "i will take it. PM sent' and the seller comes back with 'sorry man someone beat you and pm'd me first. Do I have legitimate right to bitch, moan and cry?
I mean of course a seller can sell to whoever they want to for whatever reason... but isn't there like a traditional way to do things, like respect time stamps etc?
 
What makes you think he isn't? A PM is a PM and if his was first, it's his knife. Posting in the thread means nothing really.
 
This is something that gets to me, too, Casimirrx. Very poor form, violation of etiquette. Nevertheless, had the PMing buyer posted in the forum instead of via PM, you still would have lost the item. What gets to us is that we feel cheated of the opportunity, but we weren't. We just had the false impression that the item was ours when it wasn't.

Hope this helps.
 
The Zieg said:
This is something that gets to me, too, Casimirrx. Very poor form, violation of etiquette. Nevertheless, had the PMing buyer posted in the forum instead of via PM, you still would have lost the item. What gets to us is that we feel cheated of the opportunity, but we weren't. We just had the false impression that the item was ours when it wasn't.

Hope this helps.
Click to expand...

My thoughts exactly! You articulated it much better than I could.
Well guys thanks for taking the time for letting me in on some objective advise. I am actually finding it hard to be butt hurt about much.... I weaseled the time to drive out to California Custom Knife Show in Cali this weekend! :)
 
I have "lost" many knives that way. I really wish people would post in the thread but for whatever reason they don't. Not to long ago I posted that I would take a knife and was beaten to it by a PM and to top it off the buyer asked the seller to hold it for him for a few days. Buyer accepted the terms and buyer did pay. I was a little pissed because it was a knife on my wish list. Then it hit me. We are dealing with knives . And in reality most of us don't need anymore and if you get beat so what.

I realized that this is supposed to be a fun pastime and there will be another along very soon. So I would be wasting energy crying and bitching about something that I don't need. Who am I going to cry to anyway....My wife ? That would be pretty funny .
 
I do cry to my woman when I get beat out on wish list items. It's usually by minutes, within minutes of the ad being posted. I get antsy when I see tons of names in the "viewing thread" section, go through a tiny adrenaline rush/panic attack trying to read quickly and make a decision. She sympathizes not. Oh well, the chase is part of the fun.

I feel for you OP but, unless the seller specifically requires an "I'll take it" followed by a PM, I'd say he's done nothing wrong. I personally post first regardless.
 
If you don't like how someone does business don't do business with them. Vote with your money. A person can sell however they see fit within the rules.

Etiquette
 
I never post in an ad - I contact the seller via PM or email. It's an old habit, from another hobby...in other words, it's just the way I do things. (In fact, if a seller posts my name in the thread, I send another PM requesting that my name be removed.) I realize that this isn't directly about me (though, for all I know, I could be the one that bought the knife you wanted); but - really - what difference does it make whether contact is made via post, PM, email, whatever? If time stamp is the rule of thumb, they've all got one.
Look at it this way - I've seen a lot of ads that indicate the items are advertised elsewhere...would you bitch, moan, and cry if you were told that somebody got it from an ad posted elsewhere?
 
casimirrx said:
If someone posts something for sale and I secure a time stamp with "i will take it. PM sent' and the seller comes back with 'sorry man someone beat you and pm'd me first. Do I have legitimate right to bitch, moan and cry?
I mean of course a seller can sell to whoever they want to for whatever reason... but isn't there like a traditional way to do things, like respect time stamps etc?
Click to expand...

You answered your own question.

In my for sale threads I make it clear that a post in the thread and an email are required. That said, I also make it clear that I reserve the right to sell to whom I choose. Even if unstated, to assume otherwise would do exactly what assume is spelled like.
 
Whenever I post a knife for sale, I avoid issues by stating..."The first I'll take it gets it." Occasionally I've received a PM stating "I'll take it!" I usually reply back via PM that in order to secure the knife, the intention to purchase must be indicated in the thread where the knife is posted for sale, otherwise the knife remains available.
 
Not to disrupt the flow of the thread, but I find the above two posts interesting. Would either of you, upon receipt of a PM'd "I'll take it. Please send a payment request to:________", decline that sale simply because the buyer didn't want to post in the ad?

If somebody posted in the ad just before the person that had PM'd got his post in, would you disallow the PM's timestamp because of the posted claim?
 
Some folks adhere to their own rules much better than others. One seller may say, you must post in the thread and another might not care while having it in writing anyway. I've always given preference & priority to the people that can and do follow the instructions in my sales threads. As more of a buyer than a seller, I have to say that no knife is mine until I have paid for it and it is in my hand. In the end, I can only try to buy what I want, if it is in the right condition, right price, and right time. Sometimes missing a sale is a blessing in disguise due to the lack of understanding of what some people consider to be new or like-new. That is a whole other can of worms in and of itself.
 
RevDevil - I can totally understand that; and I absolutely understand (and agree with) the concept of using a seller's preferred means of contact...and generally I do so. But, to me, it seems odd to force another step (the post) when the next statement is going to be "Send me a PM". I get that requiring PMs from the start eliminates registered members, AND that a posted claim could/should eliminate a bunch of extra messages; but, if that claim hasn't been made, is it really that big a deal? (Not trying to be argumentative, this is simply for the sake of discussion).
In the case of 2 responses - one posted, the other PMd - with the same time stamp; I wouldn't dispute the seller's right to go with the posted response if that is his choice.

People are going to hate me if I ever start selling here, lol, because I close my ads as a matter of routine...and I'm okay with the fact that some people simply won't use PM or email to say they want it (just as I'm okay with somebody choosing not to take my money because I won't post in their ad).
 
No, PM into my box takes it if it is the first response. If, after that is received, someone posts I'll take it in the thread before I'm able to post SOLD and close the thread, I would notify that buyer that the knife has been sold. When I indicate that the first "I'll take it." get's it, I don't stipulate how I must receive an intention to purchase.
I do however, ask a buyer who contacts me via PM to also "take it" in the sale thread so that it's clear the knife is sold.

hhmoore said:
Not to disrupt the flow of the thread, but I find the above two posts interesting. Would either of you, upon receipt of a PM'd "I'll take it. Please send a payment request to:________", decline that sale simply because the buyer didn't want to post in the ad?

If somebody posted in the ad just before the person that had PM'd got his post in, would you disallow the PM's timestamp because of the posted claim?
Click to expand...
 
Every buyer here has the option to buy from whomever they want. Every seller therefore has the same right. No need for anyone to get upset either way.
 
hhmoore said:
RevDevil - I can totally understand that; and I absolutely understand (and agree with) the concept of using a seller's preferred means of contact...and generally I do so. But, to me, it seems odd to force another step (the post) when the next statement is going to be "Send me a PM". I get that requiring PMs from the start eliminates registered members, AND that a posted claim could/should eliminate a bunch of extra messages; but, if that claim hasn't been made, is it really that big a deal? (Not trying to be argumentative, this is simply for the sake of discussion).
In the case of 2 responses - one posted, the other PMd - with the same time stamp; I wouldn't dispute the seller's right to go with the posted response if that is his choice.

People are going to hate me if I ever start selling here, lol, because I close my ads as a matter of routine...and I'm okay with the fact that some people simply won't use PM or email to say they want it (just as I'm okay with somebody choosing not to take my money because I won't post in their ad).
Click to expand...

Forcing that extra step in the past has amounted to a written verification that someone indeed wants the item. It became widely requested when there was a streak of flakers that would claim the item then back out for whatever reason or when Paypal would need to be involved. Then that would bring its own truckload of issues. It's up to the seller to set the terms of their sale in a direct, honest, and simple way that can allow them to move their item.

I don't think people would hate your selling style. I mean, it no better or worse than that of the next guy. Just different.
 
Gastonknife said:
Every buyer here has the option to buy from whomever they want. Every seller therefore has the same right. No need for anyone to get upset either way.
Click to expand...

+1 to this! Myself, it doesn't matter if I get an "I'll take it" via a PM or in the thread. If multiple people want to buy what I'm selling, at my asking price, whoever contacts me first gets the item. Some people will only contact you via PM because they want to keep the sale private, I have no problems with this. Regarding people who send an offer for less than my asking price, unless I have already agreed to it, they may be bumped out if I get a better offer from someone else.
 
hhmoore said:
Not to disrupt the flow of the thread, but I find the above two posts interesting. Would either of you, upon receipt of a PM'd "I'll take it. Please send a payment request to:________", decline that sale simply because the buyer didn't want to post in the ad?

If somebody posted in the ad just before the person that had PM'd got his post in, would you disallow the PM's timestamp because of the posted claim?
Click to expand...

Possibly, the main reason I ask for an email and a post is with the post I can see what type of member you are here. Being that this is GBU I am sure you a have noticed there is a fair amount of DBs out there. To avoid any issues I would prefer not to sell to someone who has a negative thread here.
 
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